•Theorem Lw1w has a 0/1
law.
•
•Proof Let f 2 Lk1w
•Case 1. There
exists a model A for both f and qk . Then, for every model B of qk we have B ² f, hence m(f) = 1
•Case 2. There is no such model. Then : f and qk have a common
model and we prove m(f) = 0.